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Originally Posted by Interesting Ian  The whole argument is based around the notion that if psi is operating, the neuronal responses must be different from when it is not operating. |
Yes that is what they (Bierman and others too) are reasoning in this type of experiment (and they could be right)
however if the brain is a filter of consciousness, we could also alternatively view psi as a largely unconscious pre-brain filtered effect, would such filtering show up in an fMRI? Hmm .... perhaps not or perhaps it might.
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Hence we surely must take it as a given that statistically significant results were obtained suggesting that psi is either occurring or apparently occurring.
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That would be fascinating outcome! *if* they got a statistically significant psi results but due to no correlating fMRI response, they dismiss it like 'nothing but something else unknown' ....it could actually point to an external consciousness producing a psi effect without a clearly related fMRI response?
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If there were no indication whatsoever that psi is operating then obviously indistinguishable neuronal responses would be obtained regardless of whether psi exists or not.
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Yes, if they are correlating no psi found with no fMRI correlation found to try and prove psi doesn't exist .......if so, in my opinion they have proven nothing, except the future of science may be doomed in such hands
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But of course we need to get hold of the paper before discussing it.
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Yes indeed but it is fun for us all to speculate till then.