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Originally Posted by David Well, if free will doesn't exist, a proof that depends on it goes up in smoke. |
True, but Ian's proof is a proof that free will exists.
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As I say, you probably can't get a watertight proof because of the problem about definitions, which in turn boils down to the fact that you do not accept the normal meaning of 'free will'.
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Ian's proof does not use this supposed normal meaning of free will, either. His definition is along the lines of "mental causation."
There is no normal definition of free will.
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Well, how did the ancients learn about fire (or almost any other phenomenon). They didn't start by requiring impossible (at that stage) definitions, which is exactly my point!
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Fire is a physical thing with a separate existence, making it amenable to investigation. Is that what we should assume about free will?
~~ Paul