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Originally Posted by Open Mind (1) Yes but the dog is still spending more time at window when the owner is coming home than when the owner is not coming home. |
Sheldrake brushes that aside, when his theory is that the dogs to the owner's intent (which ought not to happen until they have, you know, the intent) by saying that the dogs must have known the owner was GOING to think it. Which is some Grade-A retrodicting, right there.
Or does Sheldrake think dogs can tell the future? If *that's* the case, why would the dog go to the window before hand at all? Why not sit still until right before the owner returns, which the dog knows the moment of?
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(2) In these experiments, the owner (but not others at home) was told the irregular time to return beforehand. The reason for the owner knowing the return time was so that the owner could naturally occupy herself with normal activities. The alternative experiment would have been the owner was sitting waiting for hours on a phone call to return, under pressure trying not to think about going home while waiting ...
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Why do you see a difference between a person thinking "must do this for ten minutes before going home" and "wonder when I'll be going home?" In both cases, the experiment occurs and the owner is engaging in stalling tactics. I'm not sure why one would be a sufficient filter.
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Sheldrake, quite correctly chose to test the claim under natural conditions unlike Wiseman who had the owner sitting waiting). The claim is not a super remote viewing dog who can see the owner on the road home ... it is a claim of empathy between owner's intention and dog, the dog responding to intentions of the owner to return home.
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Empathy? Ah, yes, the empathy claim. Sheldrake lessens his claims of what psi is possible down to a "um, just a weak, general force, maybe?" because there's less evidence. If he were finding evidence, then he'd be boldly proclaiming it.
Also, if it's empathy, why need to do the dogs that know at all? Why not, instead of testing the knowledge of the owner's return, just have the owner in another room going through a gamut of emotional states? If the dog DOES have a connection, and dogs DO react to our emotional states, it should be trivial to have the owner sit in a room a block away and for the tester to make him happy or sad, then see if the dog gets correspondingly happy or sad. If the owner is threatened, or feels a potential threat, will the dogs back mysteriously go up?
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OK, let us assume that similar sounding cars are driving by at times that correspond significantly with the owner coming home at irregular, varying times of day ... something else not explicable by classical determinism/mechanics is still occuring.
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Are you seriously suggesting that psi is more likely than traffic?
Suppose the owner has a popular car. Suppose that dozens of the same car go down the street an hour, or a minute. The dog might not react to the sounds of every car because other noises may be going on (a loud truck overwhelming the sound of the car), but will react to a bunch.
Anyway, if you're talking "random" return times, why can't "random" sounds overlap? Is everyone else in the city working on a precise schedule? There's going to be random variance in traffic patterns, with different owners of the same car type driving by at different times. Hell, some might correspond to dogs walking down the street, or other observable moments.
Saying that random traffic patterns can't explain random return times seems a bit of a stretch; if there are enough events going on, you'll get the pattern. And who knows, it could entirely be a statistical fluke; if the test was run again 100 times, they could get absolutely nothing.
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The burden of proof is on the counter claimant to demonstrate an alternative explanation actually works..... there is an alternative explanation called cheating (training the dog to respond to clues e.g. owner contacts house on opposite of side of road to open window when owner is on way home) .... otherwise I cannot think of any other 'skeptic' non-cheating hypothesis that can explain away the data as not suggestive of psi existing. If skeptics can think of a non-cheating counter explanation, lets hear how plausible it sounds.
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The burden of proof is on the person attempting to prove the claim. I should point out that this person doesn't have a clear idea of what's going on, how or why, yet feels confident to say it's psi. I should also point out that this person has a history of disproving his own theories but then interpreting said disproof as evidence FOR his theories.
I should also point out that I've disproved one of this man's theories (two, actually) using simple logic.
The man just doesn't understand statistics.
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I disagree. Sheldrake tried to rule out reasonable alternate hypotheses... he didn't rule out all ridiculous alternate hypotheses..
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Cars are a ridiculous hypothesis?
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Explanations that do not fit the data are not explanations.
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We agree completely on that score, sir. For my money, "psi" doesn't fit the data.